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2013年12月31日星期二

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Exam Code: 000-M78
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Technical Mastery Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is a contributor of member records to the Hub.?
A. Attribute Segment
B. Definitional Source
C. Informational Source
D. Consuming Source
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the view of a member or entity in Inspector called?
A. Enterprise View
B. Composite View
C. Consolidated View
D. Most Current View
Answer: B

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NO.3 What does the MADUNLLOAD job do?
A. It loads the records into the report extractor
B. It formats the Dun & Bradstreet data to be loaded into the relationships table
C. It performs simple data cleansing, like removing blanks and zeros
D. It loads UNL files into the database for Member, Entity, Audit, and Relationship data
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-M42
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Sametime Unified Telephony Basic Tech Sales Mas v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which tool is used to prepare the configuration information for the TAS installation?
A. A text editor is used to put all TAS configurations into the responsefile.txt file
B. A tool with the name NCPE is used to create a node.cfg file
C. There is no tool necessary. The configuration is requested during installation.
D. The configuration tool YAST is used
Answer: A

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NO.2 To make a "drag-and-drop" conference, the user.?
A. selects all other users and clicks to start the conference.
B. clicks for conference and then adds users one by one.
C. asks operator to add the next user in the existing conference.
D. selects new user and drag and drops on the current call.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How many possibilities does one have to make a SUT conference call?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-910
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment & Administration Update)
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Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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Exam Code: LOT-920
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebShpere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal cluster
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal installation
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.5 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate, certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

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NO.8 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance criteria
Answer: C

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NO.15 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory, and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.18 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.19 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in
Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework
Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is
granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All
Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of
the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.
Answer: A

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NO.3 With respect to Cognos 10 security, which of the following is true of the Cognos namespace?
A. Only contains predefined groups and roles.
B. Can be used to create custom groups, roles and users.
C. Can be used to create Cognos 10 specific groups and roles.
D. Can be deleted if a different namespace is used to secure the environment.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is true when applying object security in Framework Manager?
A. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects remain accessible to all users.
B. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other
objects will not be accessible to all users.
C. Allow overrides Deny if specified in the properties of the object.
D. Child objects only inherit security from their parent if the Inherit property is set to Yes.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment.?
A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups
and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and
roles (of which users are members), not individual users.
Answer: C

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NO.1 A large medical company is planning a virtualization and consolidation project to replace one third of
their current servers. The servers unaffected include z10, Linux, and Windows. Which of the following is
the business value of a Virtualization Engine?
A. Customers have access to resources though web services using a resource model
B. Customers have a methodical approach to virtualization starting points and project expansion
consistently
C. Customers gather information about business resources associated with business service and the
relationship between these resources
D. Customers start with installing the VE Console followed by their choice of VE products
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer executive is very interested in IBM's virtualization strategy and has asked you to articulate
the main theme. Which of the following defines IBM's virtualization strategy?
A. Specially priced combinations of IBM servers, storage and software designed for optimization in
specific industries
B. A group of IBM server products and middleware that allow service oriented architecture (SOA) across
platforms
C. It is a set of technologies and capabilities that span servers, storage, network, operating system and
higher-level, system-management functions
D. A set of policies and procedures for IT service level management to reduce system administration
through automation
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are talking to the CEO of a large enterprise and he has asked, from a business point of view what
does virtualization provide? Which of the following best describes that business value to the CEO.?
A. Maximize utilization of business computing and storage assets, reduce time to set up new applications
B. Improve CPU utilization by replacing single windows servers with blades
C. Reduce network port counts with VLAN tagging
D. Consolidate storage resources into a set of tiered pool
Answer: A

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and storage virtualization project. You have been working for the last year to develop the solution and had
presented the final proposal to the CFO the previous month. The project is to begin within 45 days of
receipt of the P O. Which of the following would be the next logical step?
A. Review the payment milestones with the customer accounts payable department
B. Immediately begin reviewing resumes to hire additional technical staff in order to insure success of the
project
C. Schedule a meeting with the previously defined project manager and technical delivery teams leaders
that will be responsible for project
D. Meet with the customer's key decision makers over dinner within the next 30 days to review the
implementation plan
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer is concerned about virtualization and fears managing a virtualized environment. Which of
the following is an answer to this objection?
A. Use Tivoli provisioning and monitoring software
B. Increased redundancy
C. Lower TCO
D. Use WebSphere Process Server
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has workloads which have different peak demands at different times, and
overcommitted memory on a system with several partitions. The CIO has heard that the primary benefit of
Active Memory Sharing is maximizing overall memory utilization on the system and wants to include this
in plans to upgrade the system to POWER7. Which PowerVM edition supports Active Memory Sharing?
A. Expert Edition
B. Express Edition
C. Standard Edition
D. Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

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NO.7 When selling a complex virtualization solution to a client, IBM recommends performing what type of
review?
A. Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA)
B. Review of Contracts and Plans (RCP)
C. Solutions Guarantee Review (SGR)
D. Solutions Pricing Review (SPR)
Answer: A

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following best address their BR requirements?
A. Continuous Availability, end to end automation
B. Backup / Restore
C. Rapid data recovery
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following are typically the top two benefits that customers anticipate from server
virtualization?
A. Increased utilization and lower cost
B. Lower software license costs and fewer applications
C. Lower utilization and higher availability
D. Increased utilization and application performance variability
Answer: D

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quickly and eliminate excess servers and storage as soon as possible. Which of the following is the most
logical approach to this project?
A. Virtualize servers with internal storage first
B. Virtualize the largest servers first
C. Virtualize the most significant applications first
D. Virtualize one department at a time
Answer: D

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NO.1 An administrator needs to group several brokers into a Broker Set to make it easier to manage them
from a single WebSphere Message Broker Explorer workspace. The administrator creates an Automatic
Broker Set using the filter brokerEnvironment:Production. Which of the following steps does the
administrator need to perform in WebSphere Message Broker Explorer to ensure the correct brokers are
in this Broker Set?
A. Drag and drop the correct brokers onto the Broker Set.
B. Manually change the Properties of the correct brokers.
C. Manually change the Broker Tags of the correct brokers.
D. Define the properties of the filter to select brokers by the correct name.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator needs to modify the JVM Heap Size property that is associated with an execution
group. Which command should the administrator execute?
A. mqsichangebroker
B. mqsichangeproperties
C. mqsichangeexecutiongroup
D. mqsicreateexecutiongroup
Answer: B

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NO.3 A broker administrator needs to verify the number of message flows that are running or will start to run
within each execution group in a running broker. Which detail level should be specified for mqsilist BRK1
-d?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator needs to administer a broker on a Windows platform through the Administration API
exerciser. How can the administrator start the exerciser?
A. Set the mqsiclasspath and then invoke ConfigManagerProxy.sh
B. Invoke the shell script install_dir/sample/ConfigManagerProxy/StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser
C. Run the shell script install_dir\sample\ConfigManagerProxy\StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser
from a WebSphere Message Broker Command Console.
D. Put a .bat script install_dir/sample/ConfigMangerProxy/StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser which
can include the broker environment and start the Configuration Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator has been asked to do capacity planning for the implementation of WebSphere
Message Broker on an already existing system where other enterprise applications are running.
What is the recommended approach for sizing?
A. Analyze the current capacity sizing on the system.
B. Implement WebSphere Message Broker and add 1GB RAM in current production.
C. Implement WebSphere Message Broker on the production so the capacity planning can be done.
D. Vertically scale the system by adding CPU, RAM & disk space if needed for Message Broker
implementation.
E. Generate the capacity planning report via the capacity planning for a given topology feature in
WebSphere Message Broker.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 An administrator has backed up the broker using the command mqsibackupbroker. The command was
issued while the broker was running and processing deployments. What is the outcome?
A. The command completes successfully as normal.
B. The backup file contains incomplete information and is unusable.
C. The command does not complete until deployments are complete.
D. An error message was issued indicating the broker was in use.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A company has a central server, which stores the catalogue price of everything that the company sells.
This information is required by all Point of Sale (PoS) terminals in all the stores, and each PoS terminal
must be notified of any price change. The PoS terminals connect to the central server through TCP/IP and
wait for any price changes. The server sends any price changes to all connected client applications. The
company has future plans to include other types of PoS clients which uses
WebSphere MQ protocol to interact with the central server. How should the system be
implemented?
A. Implement protocol conversion on the application code.
B. Implement protocol transformation engines at request entry point.
C. Implement WebSphere Message Broker with TCP/IP and WebSphere MQ Adapters.
D. Implement WebSphere Message Broker to support other request protocols like WebSphere MQ.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A company has legacy and modern applications co-existing in their enterprise environment. The legacy
application requires business messages in COMMAREA formats while the modern application requires
XML format for processing. There is a need for their web application to interact with legacy and modern
application to process a transaction. What is the recommended way for implementing the desired
solution.?
A. Split the business use case to two different transactions each invoking one target component.
B. Invoke the modern application on XML format request then process the legacy application request.
C. Implement two different format request invocation from the application to the target
components.
D. Implement WebSphere Message Broker and route the request on specified formats to the target
components.
Answer: D

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NO.9 An administrator has installed WebSphere Message Broker V7.0 on a production system which has an
existing implementation of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1. The administrator already has an
Administration API (CMP API) script for monitoring the deployed resources on V6.1. What is the option
that the administrator can use to monitor the deployed resources for WebSphere Message Broker V7.0?
A. Install SupportPac I098.
B. Reuse the existing Administration API script.
C. Update the CLASSPATH to add new API JARs.
D. Update the existing Administration API script to remove deprecated API calls.
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator is asked to set up administration security for an existing broker, so that only
authorized users can perform administrative tasks against the broker and its resources. What command
does the administrator need to run?
A. mqsisetsecurity
B. mqsichangebroker
C. mqsicreateaclentry
D. mqsichangeproperties
Answer: B

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NO.11 A message flow Flow1 is running on execution group EG1 on the broker BRK1. As per the business
requirement, the flow accesses the database for transformation and routing. The user ID and password
used by the flow need to be changed to adhere to the company's new policy for user IDs and passwords.
The administrator has been asked to change the user ID and password for the given message flow
without affecting other flows. The administrator is using the mqsisetdbparms command to set the user ID
and password. Which command should the administrator use next?
A. mqsistart BRK1
B. mqsireload BRK1 -e EG1
C. mqsistartmsgflow BRK1 -e EG1 -m Flow1
D. mqsistopmsgflow BRK1 -e EG1 -m Flow1
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator has been asked to prepare the environment for migration of WebSphere Message
Broker Version 6.0 to WebSphere Message Broker Version 7.0. What steps does the administrator need
to perform to prepare the environment for migration? Upgrade the WebSphere Message Broker Version
6.0 to use:
A. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.0 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 9 (Version 6.0.0.9) or later, upgrade
WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
B. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.1 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 7 (Version 6.0.0.7) or later, upgrade
WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
C. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.1 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 9 (Version 6.0.0.9) or later, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
D. WebSphere MQ Version 6.0.2.10 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to
Fix Pack 7 (Version 6.0.0.7) or later, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An administrator has backed up a broker on AIX using the command mqsibackupbroker. After the
broker is restored on a new machine, which one of the following tasks must be completed?
A. Restore JAR files that were deployed in BAR files.
B. Restore the configurable services that were defined.
C. Restore the necessary MQ queues for message flows.
D. Restore the /var/mqsi/components/<broker> file system.
Answer: C

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NO.14 An administrator needs to install service updates to the WebSphere Message Broker V 7.0
toolkit.What should the administrator use to do this?
A. IBM Support Center
B. IBM Software Support
C. IBM Support Assistant
D. IBM Installation Manager
Answer: D

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NO.15 An administrator has installed WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 on a production system which
has an existing implementation of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1. How should the administrator use
the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to administer WebSphere Message Broker 7.0 and
WebSphere Message Broker V6.1?
A. Use the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to adopt the V6.1 brokers.
B. Use the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to connect to the WebSphere Message Broker V6.1.
C. Install SupportPac I097 to achieve unified administration through the WebSphere Message Broker
Toolkit V7.0.
D. Administration of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1 is not supported through WebSphere Message
Broker Toolkit V7.0.
Answer: D

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NO.1 What contains the minimum required access permissions to create a cube?
A. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for an existing View
B. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, CREATE for Lookup Tables and Data Streams, and
READ-ONLY for the dimensions to include in the cube
C. CREATE for Views, Cubes, and Dimensions, READ-ONLY for an existing View, and READONLY for
the dimensions to include in the cube
D. CREATE for Views, Cubes and Dimensions, and READ-ONLY for an existing View
Answer: C

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NO.2 When editing a user's Access Permissions, what is meant by the term Effective Permissions?
A. the greatest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
B. the user's permissions against the currently selected object
C. the lowest level of permission assigned by Role-Granted and User-Specific permissions
D. the permission implementation that most effectively secures your application
Answer: A

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NO.3 A retail customer wants to monitor inventory shortages using the Real-time Monitoring application. They
would like to be notified by e-mail when any particular item is below a predefined threshold. Since
replenishment occurs weekly, they do not want to be notified again until the inventory has been restocked.
Which two actions accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)
A. Create a fire rule with "do not notify" set to seven days.
B. Create a rule which resets a previously raised alert.
C. Create a "notify me once" rule which automatically resets weekly.
D. Create a "raise" rule which will send an alert message.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 Which three settings are required to synchronize the user and/or roles from an external directory server,
like LDAP, to Real-time Monitoring? (Choose three.)
A. LDAP User Primary Email
B. LDAP User Base DN
C. LDAP Port
D. LDAP Synchronization User DN
E. LDAP Principal DN Prefix
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 A user wants to set up an escalation rule for an alert which was still in an exception condition for more
than two hours. Which function should be used in the rule?
A. HOLDS_FOR
B. IS_RAISED
C. IS_ACKED
D. ESCALATE
Answer: B

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NO.6 A small banking customer is using Real-time Monitoring (RTM) to monitor and notify customers if they
are over drafting their checking accounts. Customer information like name and e-mail address are in a
DB2 database and joined to the data based on the account ID. The customers all have accounts in RTM
and are members of the "Customers" role. The alert should only be sent to the primary e-mail account and
not shown on the RTM dashboard. What must you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Choose the "Account ID" column for a data-driven subscription.
B. Choose the "Email" column for a data-driven subscription.
C. Subscribe the "Customers" role to the alert as a mandatory subscriber.
D. Subscribe each user from the "Customers" role to the alert as an optional subscriber.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A virtual machine farm technician is monitoring the memory usage of hundreds of virtual machines in
the farm. The technician previously defined a rule to be informed with an immediate notification if the
memory usage on any virtual machine remains above 90 percent for two minutes. The technician now
wants to reset the alert once the memory usage stabilizes and falls below 80 percent after such an
incident. Which three steps are part of the solution? (Choose three.)
A. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 90%.
B. Define a rule with condition -- memory usage < 80%.
C. Create a new alert and select "Reset an alert".
D. Select the alert defined for "memory usage > 90%" and choose "Reset an alert for a specific
occurrence".
E. Specify "Maintain alert states for".
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.8 Real-time Monitoring (RTM) is used as a performance management tool in a call center. An alert with
the agent name and agent code is generated when the performance of an agent is below a specified
threshold value. Managers have requested that the alert message provide a link to the ERP system. The
link should contain the agent code as a parameter in the URL. How would you accomplish this goal?
A. Use an external portlet with a dynamic parameter.
B. Use an external reportlet with a dynamic parameter.
C. Use an external reportlet with a static parameter for the agent code.
D. Insert a direct link to the ERP system in the alert body.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user belongs to a role whose members have read-only access to views, cubes, and dimensions. Why
is this user able to edit a particular view in the Real-time Monitoring Workbench?
A. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used by the view.
B. The role the user belongs to has been granted read/write permission directly on the DataStream used
by the view.
C. All views are editable by default, regardless of permissions inherited by the role.
D. The user has been granted read/write permission directly on the view object.
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer switches from internal authentication to external LDAP authentication. They have an
existing internal user "Bob" with a password "internal". They have another user named "Bob" in the
external LDAP server with password "external". They synchronize the users from the external LDAP
server to Real-time Monitoring. Why is the customer unable to login with the username and password
"Bob/external"?
A. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob replaced the existing internal user Bob.
B. Synchronization failed as there was an existing internal user Bob in the metadata, so no new external
user was imported.
C. Synchronization succeeded and the external user Bob was skipped because there was an existing
internal user Bob in the metadata.
D. Synchronization failed but the internal user Bob was deleted and no new external user was imported.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-058
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Performance Tester V8 )
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 What are three key elements of a workload? (Choose three.)
A. user attributes (types and characteristics)
B. transaction mix and frequency
C. test script creation
D. data security
E. test environment and configuration
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.2 What do good candidates for datapool substitution do?
A. simulate unique user credentials and data entry choices by individual users
B. simulate random timing and workflow variations by individual users
C. improve application performance by requesting pages that are already cached
D. make performance more predictable by using the same data values for every user
Answer: A

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NO.3 When you first run your test, the results are very spiky.
How should you smooth your data?
A. paced loop
B. random selector
C. comment
D. delay
Answer: A

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NO.4 What happens to all the page elements in a test?
A. They are grouped by page unless the application under test uses AJAX.
B. They are grouped by page as a visual aid to enhance readability.
C. They are assigned dynamically to separate virtual testers at playback time.
D. They use separate records from a single datapool.
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company wants to see if their website can be operated under load for a longer duration of time. Which
type of test is suitable for this requirement?
A. stress test
B. volume test
C. contention test
D. endurance test
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are four options in customizing the appearance of a report graph in the Graphic Configuration
window.? (Choose four.)
A. graphic spans full width
B. display run time
C. draw thick lines
D. use 3D bars
E. font size
F. type face
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.7 Two workstations are installed with the full IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 product in addition to a
server that is installed with the IBM Rational Agent Controller. Stress testing is conducted with all the
machines. Response time breakdown data is collected. Later the tester discovers that the data was in fact
not collected. What are four probable causes? (Choose four.)
A. The server has not been instrumented.
B. IBM Rational Performance Tester is running on the other workstation.
C. The response time breakdown collection has not been enabled.
D. The firewall between the server and the two servers has not been opened.
E. IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 is not compatible with IBM Rational Agent Controller.
F. IBM Rational Agent Controller is not running on the workstation.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.8 After a test run, the tester sums up all the individual requests response times but discovers that the total
is not equal to the overall page response time. What are three causes of the difference? (Choose three.)
A. There is a defect in IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 that will be fixed in the next fix pack.
B. The page response time is more than the sum of the requests because it accounts for time taken to set
up the connections.
C. The page response time is less than the sum of the requests because several requests could have
been executed concurrently.
D. The page response time is more than the sum of the requests because custom code for response
correlation in a page is executed serially and is added to the page response time.
E. The page response time is less than the sum of the requests because the response for the request is in
the system cache.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.9 What should you do first, before you record a performance test?
A. reset the test environment (servers running, data refreshed)
B. start IBM Rational Performance Tester
C. push the red Record button
D. open your browser
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is true about a custom code segment?
A. It can use any string highlighted in orange as an input variable.
B. It can use one or more references that precede it as input variables.
C. It can use one or more references that follow it as return values.
D. It always returns null unless there has been a correlation error.
Answer: B

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