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Exam Code: HP2-K21
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP Enterprise Storage Solutions-Delta)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Your customer has two D2D2501 devices each with a single VTL configured and a D2D4112 with two
VTLs configured, each replicating to a D2D4312 How many replication licenses are required for this
design.?
A. 1 license
B. 2 licenses
C. 3 licenses
D. 4 licenses
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true about using Performance Advisor to gather P9500 performance data?
A. One collection schedule can be created per array.
B. Two collection schedules can be created per array
C. Three collection schedules can be created per array
D. Four collection schedules can be created per array
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which P4000 features does a Multi-site SAN offer that a Campus SAN does not? (Select two.)
A. multi-subnet clusters
B. centralized licensing
C. I/O preferencingbasedon site
D. auto failover and tailback
E. SAN1Q Failover Manager
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which statement is true about iSCSl clusters when implemented on a P4000?
A. It can only span one subnet
B. It can only span two subnets
C. It can only span three subnets
D. It can only span tour subnets
Answer: B

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NO.5 On the X1000 and X3000 Network storage systems, which standard feature of Windows 2008 optimizes
storage capacity by actively comparing and eliminating identical files on file sharing volumes?
A. dynamic deduplication
B. StofeOnce
C. accelerated deduplication
D. Single Instance Storage
Answer: D

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NO.6 Your customer is considering the HP 3PAR range of arrays and is concerned about resilience. Which
feature provides increased resiliency?
A. write-thru cache
B. disk-dependent RAID
C. dynamic optimization
D. many-to-many drive rebuild
Answer: D

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NO.7 The StorageWorks P4000 SAN architecture consists of three basic layers. Which function or component
is contained in the OS infrastructure layer?
A. Security Services
B. Centralized Management Console
C. Windows Solution Pack
D. P4000VSA
Answer: C

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NO.8 The HP 3PAR architecture is capable of parallel processing of data and control information. What does
this help provide?
A. QoS tagging of all 10 requests
B. l/O priontization
C. application aware I'O processing
D. consistent performance for mixed workloads
Answer: D

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NO.9 Your customer is looking to implement replication between three D2D devices. Which statement is true
about licensing the replication functionality of the D2D?
A. A replication license is required for both the source and the target devices
B. A replication license is required for the target devices
C. Replication functionality is included as part of the base firmware and is not licensed
D. A replication license is only required for the source device.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Autonomic tiering provides a self-optimizing capability for which HP array'?
A. HP EVA
B. HP3PAR
C. HP P4000
D. HPX9000
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-D13
Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Enterprise Portfolio,Rev. 11.41 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 144 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 How do Integrity Virtual Machines (VMs) differ from vPars?
A. vPars employ the Platform Manager, which Is responsible for maintaining all resource queues,
schedules, and allocations
B. VMs use dedicated resources that are exclusively under the control of one kernel
C. vPars are best for fine-grained, virtualized soft partitioning with shared resources.
D. VMs share resources among kernels known as "guests"
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which type of HP partition provides complete hardware and software isolation?
A. hard partitions (nPars) with multiple nodes
B. virtual partitions (vPars)
C. hard partitions (nPars) within a single node
D. resource partitions
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about HP-UX Workload Manager (WLM) and HP Global Workload Manager
(gWLM)?
A. HP gWLM is designed for customers with remote nodes in a Continental Cluster. WLM is designed for
new installations where automatic system discovery is required
B. HP gWLM provides decentralized management of virtualization functions across multiple servers,
WLM provides centralized management of virtualization functions across individual servers
C. HP gWLM is the version of WLM sold both to international customers and to U.S. customers with
branch offices abroad.
D. HP gWLM supports larger solutions running multiple operating systems. WLM supports smaller
solutions running a single type of operating system.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You are acting as a consultant to an enterprise customer. With which corporate representative should
you discuss IT/business alignment goals?
A. procurement manager
B. board chairman
C. chief operations officer
D. chief executive officer
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is a common characteristic of an enterprise environment that needs improved backup and restore
efficiency?
A. slow system performance during backups
B. slowly growing volumes of data
C. a SCSI attached storage architecture
D. 2TB to 5TB of storage per server
Answer: A

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NO.6 When do enterprise-level companies often choose server consolidation?
A. when they have a low ratio of administrators to servers
B. when they are running more than three operating systems
C. when reducing costs, because it is more economical for capacity planning than buying new servers
D. when they want to better manage the server inventory list
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which feature is specific to HP ProLiant high-end servers?
A. eight sockets
B. hot-swappable drives
C. iLO 3
D. Xeon processors
Answer: A

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NO.8 A customer purchases a single TiCAP license with two processor cores activated, how long will they
both stay active?
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 45 days
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which edition of Windows Server provides clustering and hot-add processor capabilities to improve
server uptime?
A. Windows HPC Server 2008 R2
B. Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise
D. Windows Small Business Server 2011 Essentials
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the HP Integrated Archive Platform?
A. an intelligent workflow and business process management solution
B. a policy-based data management system that facilitates backups on high numbers of servers
C. a solution for collecting, storing, managing, and searching unstructured data
D. an integrated solution that enables data analysis and optimization
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which advantages does HP CloudSystem Matrix otter in the area of infrastructure convergence?
(Select two.)
A. Clustering
B. Comprehensive domain management
C. disaster recovery
D. Central Management Server fault tolerance
E. Common power and cooling
Answer: B,E

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NO.12 A customer uses a traditional rack-and-stack strategy In Its data center, which results in wasted time
and space. How does CloudSystem Matrix provide an ideal solution for this customer?
A. by implementing multiple single-purpose servers in one chassis
B. by speeding the provisioning of infrastructure and applications
C. by eliminating the possibility of oversubscribed traffic
D. by allowing for a custom cable configuration
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is one example of how a Converged Infrastructure addresses an increasingly complex
environment?
A. A low-latency, high-bandwidth interconnect allows each application workload to be distributed and
shared across all system resources in a massively parallel manner
B. SAN and networking signals can be carried across common electrical pathways, resulting in fewer
physical switches to move the signals to their destinations
C. Customers want to move from "one-of-everything" to "one open common IT infrastructure that does
everything."
D. In a standard configuration for cables at the enclosure level. 16 1U rack servers, which would ordinarily
require 80 cables, might require as few as six cables.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is the current HP recommendation for power, to handle data center cooling requirements?
A. two single-phase circuits per rack
B. three three-phase circuits per rack
C. one three-phase circuit per rack
D. one single-phase circuit per rack
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are dividing a group of physical servers into multiple isolated virtual environments in order to
reduce the impact of application upgrades in the environment. How should you configure the servers to
simplify management?
A. as reusable pools of resources
B. as clustered server nodes
C. as a host/guest configuration, with each guest running on a virtual imitation of the hardware layer
D. as multiple virtual servers running multiple operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is fault tolerance?
A. the ability to prevent hardware and software failures
B. the ability to provide "five nines" availability
C. the ability to detect the failure of a primary system and failover to a redundant system
D. the ability to recover quickly from system problems
Answer: D

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NO.17 A customer is leasing shared network services in a private cloud to meet business goals. What
potential problem could this customer face?
A. insufficient management tools
B. internal-external service integration
C. cost of hardware investment
D. vendor lock-in
Answer: D

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NO.18 The HP enterprise server strategy is based on industry-standard processors. Which additional design
element does this strategy use to add value.?
A. in-box upgrades
B. manageability
C. active archiving
D. fault tolerance
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which drive technology is commonly used to store structured data?
A. SAS
B. PATA
C. SATA
D. IDE
Answer: A

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NO.20 What does FlexFabric deliver as a benefit to customers?
A. networking as a service
B. software as a service
C. platform as a service
D. infrastructure as a service
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M54
Exam Name: HP (ArcSight ESM Security Analyst )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which Event Schema group contains data fields, which describe the connector reporting an event?
A. Event
B. Device
C. Source
D. Agent
Answer: D

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NO.2 What stores information about logons, user actions, and the resulting events in the most concise way.?
A. Event annotations
B. Session Lists
C. Active Lists
D. Cases
Answer: B

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NO.3 There are 17 event field groups defined in the ArcSight Event Schema. In which group would you look
for data fields describing an event's importance as assessed by ArcSight ESM?
A. Category
B. Threat
C. Attacker
D. Event
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are valid actions for a rule to take? (Select two.)
A. send notification
B. execute command
C. generate report
D. add to filter
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the ArcSight Web interface?
A. Data Monitors cannot be added to a Dashboard in the ArcSight Web interface.
B. Reports cannot be formatted in the ArcSight Web interface.
C. Inline filters cannot be used in the ArcSight Web interface.
D. Cases cannot be modified in the ArcSight Web interface.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What does a Network Model include? (Select two.)
A. assets
B. destinations
C. zones
D. file resources
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is a good way for an operator or analyst to quickly determine which events must be addressed
first?
A. check the priority rating in a Dashboard or Active Channel
B. run a report of High Priority Threats
C. ask more senior analysts or architects
D. view the Event Grid and Correlation categories
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which tools are used to view events in ArcSight ESM? (Select two.)
A. Active Channel
B. Knowledge Base article
C. Dashboard
D. Annotations
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 Which user role is responsible for building content within ESM?
A. Administrator
B. Analyst
C. Author
D. Operator
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which statement is true about inline filters?
A. An inline filter applies only to its current Active Channel.
B. An inline filter applies only as long as the Active Channel is open, and cannot be saved.
C. An inline filter cannot use AND or OR conditions.
D. An inline filter is created using Boolean logic in the Inspect/Edit panel.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-H19
Exam Name: HP (HP Client Virtualization Solutions - Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 How does cloud computing help customers?
A. Enablesthem to centralize content creation and brand management
B. Makesmanagement functions unnecessary (including updates and patches)
C. Diagnosesand repairs their systems without user or IT support
D. Eliminatesthe need to plan or develop solutions for peak network traffic
Answer: D

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NO.2 How might students benefit from the use of client virtualization in the school?
A. Student information is secure in the data center.
B. Students have greater access to classroom computers.
C. Teachers are able to maintain and move computers to better meet student needs.
D. Students are able to learn how to maintain and secure their data.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Client virtualization is ideal for which type of customer?
A. a corporation that needs to support a large mobile user base
B. a research firm that is building complex computational models
C. a retail business that needs to run multimedia-rich applications
D. a call center that needs to personalize desktop images
Answer: C

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NO.4 Where do the user profile, data, and applications reside in a thin client solution?
A. on the Internet
B. on a Solid State Drive
C. on the client
D. in the data center
Answer: D

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NO.5 How do thin clients help a customer who is facing increasing costs.?
A. Thin client solutions eliminate the cost of licensing and reduce the time needed for patch fixes.
B. Thin client solutions reduce the cost of desktop upgrades, software, maintenance, and support.
C. Thin client computing allows large computing tasks to be distributed across many computers.
D. Thin clients allow users to be responsible for administering their own updates and maintenance.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-K30
Exam Name: HP (Technical Introduction to the HP Storage SMB)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the correct term for information whose component pieces can be manipulated?
A. metadata
B. hypermedia
C. structured content
D. unstructured content
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a key concept in the distinction between structured and unstructured data?
A. redundancy
B. granularity
C. accuracy
D. reliability
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a result of installing host bus adapters (HBAs) in an Integrity server blade.?
A. FCoE support through a LAN on Motherboard (LOM)
B. SAN-level authentication and fabric-level isolation
C. multiple operating system support
D. connectivity to the SB40c storage blade
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which type of disk drive provides the highest level of performance and reliability?
A. IDE
B. SCSI
C. FATA
D. SATA
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP3-R95
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Networking Products )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of these switches support up to two interface modules? (Select two.)
A. A5820-14XG-SFP+
B. A5820-24XG-SFP+
C. A7502
D. A7503
E. A7503-S
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which feature is supported on all modular switches in this training.?
A. Redundant, hot-swappable power supplies
B. Redundant, hot-swappable fan trays
C. Redundant, hot-swappable management modules
D. Redundant, hot-swappable switch fabric modules
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which switch series can function as a modular chassis or a fixed-form-factor stackable switch?
A. A5820 Switch Series
B. A7500 Switch Series
C. A9500 Switch Series
D. A12500 Switch Series
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M57
Exam Name: HP (HP Project and Portfolio Management Center 9.x Software )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 How are validations used? (Select two.)
A. to determine the possible results that a workflow step can return
B. to populate the static list with dynamic values
C. to format the input value of fields, using custom pre-configured rules
D. to determine the acceptable input values for user-defined fields
E. to check the syntax validity of the SQL queries that are used to retrieve values for custom dashboard
portlets
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 How can you start the creation of a Package? (Select two.)
A. from the Project Overview page
B. by selecting the "Load time as Actual Work Package" on the Timesheet
C. from the workbench
D. by clicking the Create Work Package button on a Staffing Profile page
E. by adding a new Reference to an existing Request
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which PPM module provides visibility and control across all projects that are aligned by Business
Objectives?
A. Project Management
B. Portfolio Management
C. Program Management
D. Demand Management
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can you retrieve information about your PPM licenses?
A. Check files in the /log/licenses folder.
B. Open the file license.conf with a text editor.
C. Run the script kLicenseReader.sh.
D. Call the HP pre-sales support.
Answer: B

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NO.5 During the proposal phase, which information is contained in a staffing profile?
A. a list of names and projected utilizations for the given project
B. a listing of all over-allocated or over-utilized resources within the company
C. a list of positions and expected time requirements per position to complete the project
D. a breakdown in FTE of all named resources assigned to this project
Answer: C

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NO.6 A portlet data column can be configured as which four types.?
A. text, currency, number, and summary condition/exception
B. varchar, text, array, and number
C. summary condition/exception, float, hexadecimal, and currency
D. currency, array, float, and hexadecimal
Answer: B

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NO.7 How can users update their own timesheets? (Select three.)
A. by delegating other resources to their completion
B. by adding notesor by releasing them
C. by adding Work Packages to existing lines
D. by adding/modifying timesheet lines
E. by sending them out for pre-release approval
F. by attaching reference entities
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.8 What is a functionality of the Demand Management application in PPM?
A. to deploy problem resolutions
B. to create timesheets for employees
C. to create new portfolio initiatives
D. to manage projects
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which command is used to remotely execute UNIX commands?
A. ksc_store
B. ksc_replace
C. ksc_simple_respond
D. ksc_exec
Answer: D

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NO.10 What does a "List" portlet type display?
A. Data in rows and columns
B. Multidimensional aggregations over tabular data
C. Percentages of a whole
D. Data in either vertical or horizontal bars
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-Y43
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A company has a service level agreement (SLA) with its service provider. The SLA specifies a 2 Mbps
committed information rate (CIR) and 20 KB committed burst size (CBS). Lately, during peak usage times,
the company has been experiencing brief periods of poor performance on its external connection
(GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1 on an HP 5800 switch).
How can the network administrator configure the Comware switch to address this problem?
A. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a QoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an inbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
B. Enable Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1 and ensure that all inbound traffic is
marked with the correct priority.
C. Configure generic traffic shaping (GTS) on the GigabitEthernet port 2/0/1, setting the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB.
D. Configure a traffic classifier that selects all traffic and a car traffic behavior that sets the CIR to 2 Mbps
and the CBS to 20 KB. Create a OoS policy that maps the classifier to the action and apply this policy as
an outbound policy on port GigabitEthernet 2/0/1.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A company has a network that includes HP 5800 and 12500 switches. Usage demands on the
company's FTP servers have increased, causing performance issues during peak usage times. While
analyzing link utilization, the network administrator noticed that the most heavily utilized links experience
bursts of congestion, causing them to drop traffic. The links then experience brief periods of low utilization
followed by another burst of congestion. This pattern continues periodically throughout the peak utilization
time.
What should the network administrator do to attempt to create a more efficient traffic pattern on these
links?
A. Configure an outbound traffic policing policy on the ports in question, setting the CIR at about sixty
percent of the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent.
B. Apply Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) or Weighted Round Robin (WRR) scheduling in preference to
Strict Priority (SP) scheduling on the ports in question.
C. Configure inbound traffic policing policies on ports at the core, setting the CIR at about sixty percent of
the ports' capacity and the PIR at about eighty percent. Apply outbound generic traffic shaping (GTS) on
ports facing the core ports, setting the CIR equal to the CIR on the core ports.
D. Apply a WRED table to the ports in question, optionally adjusting the table values to drop lower priority
traffic first.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch
fabric meets this need?
A. the 7500's CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500's CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500's crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500's crossbar switch fabric
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?
A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830
Answer: D

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NO.5 What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6 address.?
A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already
using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is
using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to advertise the
addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global
prefixes associated with the link immediately.
Answer: B

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NO.6 View the exhibit.
The exhibit shows a network with HP 5400 zl and 8200 zl switches throughout the core and edge. What is
one advantage of implementing routing on edge switches?
A. Typically, it is easier to implement user-based VLAN assignments.
B. The topology has higher redundancy because edge switches can take over routing roles when
necessary.
C. Typically, the network can use fewer total VLANs when edge switches implement routing.
D. Typically, it is easier to ensure that routed links between edge and core switches are fully utilized.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A network includes a mix of IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 endpoints and must support the following source
specific multicasting applications:
-Source: 10.1.4.2 and Group: 232.0.5.5
-Source: 10.1.4.12 and Group 232.0.6.6
The network is already implementing PIM-SM and IGMPv3. In order to support these applications, the HP
10500 switches that act as routers for the endpoints in question must support another feature. Which step
must the network administrator perform on each of these switches?
A. Create an SSM policy that includes 232.0.5.5 and 232.0.6.6 within its range
B. Enable IGMPv2 backward compatibility mode
C. Configure two SSM maps, each of which mapsa source to its multicast group
D. Enable PIM SSM on the interfaces that connect to the endpoints
Answer: C

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NO.8 How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers
money?
A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most
numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power
and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge,
deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and
cooling costs.
Answer: D

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NO.9 View the exhibit.
A network administrator wants to configure an HP 5800 switch to place all incoming traffic on the
GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 port in priority queue 3. However, one exception applies. All traffic incoming on that
port that is destined to UDP port 55555 should be forwarded in priority queue 4 and marked with DSCP
32.
Based on the current configurations shown in the exhibit, which further steps must the network
administrator perform? (Select two.)
A. Configure port GigabitEthernet 1>0/1 to trust DSCP
B. Apply QoS policy Policy1 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/l
C. Apply QoS policy Policy2 as on inbound policyon port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
D. Create a OoS Ip-dscp mapthat maps Ip value 4 to DSCP02
E. Undo OoS trust on port GigabitEthernet 1/0/1
Answer: B,E

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NO.10 View the exhibits.
Exhibit 1
The frame has these characteristics:
-VLANID = 3
-802.1p = 3
-DSCP=32
-Source IP address = 10.1.1.5
Click here for Exhibit 2
The frame shown in Exhibit 1 arrives on an HP 5800 switch's GigabitEthernet port 1/0/1. QoS maps are at
their default settings. Based on the configuration shown in Exhibit 2, to which queue is the outbound
packet assigned?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: D

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Exam Name: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Workstations Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is a key difference between standard cooling technology and HP liquid cooling technology?
A. standard heat sinks are replaced with cooling plates.
B. Cooling coils are built into the chassis to reduce heat.
C. A cooling plate is installed in the base to improve heat dissipation
D. Fans draw cooled air over the components for cooling.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In a conversation with your customer, you talk about the DDR3 feature of the HPZ420 Workstation.
What are you discussing.?
A. processors
B. disk drives
C. memory
D. display driver
Answer: C

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NO.3 During a conversation with your customer, you discuss their plans to transition to the next generation
workstation with the HP Z420. What should you be sure to mention?
A. HP Application Eco-system plan?
B. whole system performance design
C. built-in and simple expandability
D. stable and consistent offerings
Answer: A

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NO.4 What helps to improve acoustics on the HP Z420?
A. reduced power CPUs
B. larger cooling vents
C. more efficient fans
D. liquid cooling technology
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are speaking to a customer about the HP Application Eco-System on the HPZ420 Workstation.
Which topic are you discussing?
A. joint application testing and certification with ISV
B. list of application that are pre-loaded with the workstation
C. integrated solutions developed by HP
D. HP internal application testing system
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S36
Exam Name: HP (Archecting HP Server Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer purchased HP Intelligent Distribution Units (iPUDS) and wants to use intelligent
Power
Discovery. What is required for their current DL380 G7 services to work with this solution?
A. Common Slot-48VDC Plug Supply Kit
B. Common slot Platform Hot Plug Power Supply Kit for each server
C. An upgrade to an HP ProLiant Gen8
D. Common Slot Gold Hot Plug Supply Kit for each server
Answer: B

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NO.2 When an HP ProLiant BL460c Generation 8 server is configured with a FlexNIC, the PCI-e
devices’ port speeds can be set using increments of which size?
A. 1 GB
B. 10 GB
C. 100 MB
D. 10 MB
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are planning the new environment for a customer server consolidation project. Which tool
properly sizes the hypervisor environment and creates a Bill of Materials (BOM)?
A. HP ProLiant server sizer for ESX Server
B. HP Insight Software Sizer
C. HP Smart Solution Designer
D. HP Sizer for Citrix XenDesktop
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which technology allows multiple Fibre Channel initiators to share a single physical port?
A. Port-based SAN Zoning
B. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
C. N-Port ID Virtualization
D. Auto Port Aggregation
Answer: C

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NO.5 After sizing a rack with several ProLiant DL380p Gen8 servers running Windows Server 2008
R2
to use a redundant UPS Solution, a customer orders two HP UPS R7000s. What needs to be
done to get this UPS configuration working as a redundant UPS solution and gracefully shutdown
Windows Server 2008 R2 when a power failure occurs at the input feed of both R7000 UPSs?
A. Configure the HP UPS Network Module for each R7000 UPS and HP Power Proactive software
B. Configure the HP UPS Management Card for each R7000 UPS and HP power proactive
software
C. Configure the HP UPS Management Card for each R7000 UPS and HP Power manager
software
D. Configure the HP UPS Network Module for each R7000 UPS and HP Power manager software
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are creating an offer for a mixed BladeSystem and rack Mount environment. Which tool
can
be used to perform a complete power sizing for this solution?
A. HP Power manager
B. HP power Advisor
C. HP BladeSystem power Sizer
D. HP iPDU Configurator
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-T21
Exam Name: HP (Administering HP Server Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 87 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is part of an SNMP implementation ? (Select two)
A. community names
B. providers
C. CIM
D. traps
E. DMI
Answer: AD

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NO.2 Which operating system can be provisioned from HP SIM together with the lnfoserver utility
on as many as
eight lntegrity servers simultaneously?
A. RedHat Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Windows
D. OpenVMS
Answer: D

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NO.3 A system that is managed by HP Systems lnsight Manager (HP SIM) displays a minor error in
the SW
column in the HP SIM console. What does this indicate?
A. The system failed to receive a status query response from VCRM.
B. The system completed a minor update and needs validation.
C. A major update is needed on one component.
D. One or more system components need a minor update
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is part of a WBEM implementation? (Select two.)
A. CIM
B. traps
C. XML
D. MIBs
E. community name
Answer: AC

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NO.5 A proliant Gen8 server fails and will not boot. How can you view the server's Active Health
System logs?
A. Review the logs from the System Management Homepage
B. Run the Insight Diagnostic utility from the Insight Online device group
C. Use TFTP to tranfert the logs directly from the server to a client
D. Download the logs from Intelligent Provisionning to a USB key
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which lnsight Remote Support option is available with Proliant Gen8 servers?
A. setup with Smart Setup CD
B. preconfiguration at the HP factory
C. use of the ilO Configuration user interface
D. remote use of a support server on the HP network
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which third-party virtualization solutions are supported with HP management plug-ins for
lnsight Control?
(Select two_)
A. VMware vCenter Server
B. Integrity VM Manager
C. Microsoft System Center
D. RedHat KVM Manager
E. Citrix Xenserver
Answer: AC

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NO.8 A newly configured server seems to be bottlenecked in CPU performance. You suspect that the
processor
power regulation state might be causing the problem.
Which two tools can you use to review the CPU setting and change it if necessary? (Select two.)
A. HP SIM
B. iLO
C. iPDU
D. ACU
E. RBSU
Answer: BE

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NO.9 Which feature requires HP Systems lnsight Manager (HP SIM) be installed?
A. Insight Online warranty tracking
B. System Management Homepage status summary
C. ilO Management Engine remote console
D. lnsight Control power management
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which features require licensing for the iLO management processor on a Proliant DL360 server?
(Select
Iwo.)
A. power management
B. Virtual Media
C. HP SIM advanced reporting
D. automated status reporting to HP
E. error log management
Answer: AB

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